Bombing Of Stockholm?

Discussion in 'General' started by WW2COMM, Apr 7, 2005.

  1. WW2COMM

    WW2COMM Junior Member

    Can somebody answer a question?

    I read on a timeline that on February 22, 1944, the USSR bombed Stockholm, Sweden, then Helsinki Finland a few days later. Is this correct? I have tried to confirm this other places, but have been able to do so. If somebody could set me straight, I would appreciate it!

    Thanks...
     
  2. smc66

    smc66 Member

    The bombing of Helsinki and other towns in Finland is certainly correct as the Soviet Union was at war with Finland until September 1944.
     
  3. BrianP

    BrianP Member

    I think a couple of stray V-2's landing in parts of Sweden, but no organized bombing campaign, especially by the Soviets.
     
  4. ravensuominen

    ravensuominen Junior Member

    Soviets accidentally bombed the Stockholm area in February 1944. It seems to be very difficult to find more information on this incident. It seems that even Sweden wanted to remain quiet on the subject. I once found a web page (in Swedish) with an interview of a Swedish man who was in the Swedish army at the time and got nearly killed by a bomb that was dropped near his regiment in Strängnäs. He seemed to be quite certain that the bombing was in fact planned.

    -- RS
     
  5. smc66

    smc66 Member

    It would not surprise me if the bombing was a "planned accident" to send certain messages to the Swedish government, perhaps from getting involved with the conflict with Finland.

    The Soviets were pretty good at planning at accidental bombings and shootings.
     
  6. angie999

    angie999 Very Senior Member

  7. HEKE

    HEKE Member

    Stockholm got bombed during World War 2? That is definitely something interesting. I mean, Sweden was a neutral country during World War 2, so why should it get bombed? I am quite sure that these "planned accidents" are the right answer. The Main reason was to keep Sweden from sending help, for example, to Finland. Even if it did not do much physical damage, it sure affected the minds of the Swedish people by sending a message "Keep out of the war or more of these accidents will happen".
     
  8. adrian roberts

    adrian roberts Senior Member

    I don't know about bombing but the Swedish Air Force (Flygvapnet) lost several fighters that went up to investigate both Allied and Axis aircraft that strayed into Swedish airspace.
    The principal fighter the Swedes used was the Italian Reggiane RE2000, and this being a radial engined type was easily mistaken for a FW190 by the Allies and for a P47 by the Germans.
    Also, I have heard that a Swedish volunteer squadron served with the Finnish air force in 1939-40, using the radial-engined export version of the Hawker Hart.
    Adrian
     
  9. Timtom

    Timtom Junior Member

    The USAAF bombed Switzerland on and off, most notable hitting Zürick on March 5 1945, killing 12.

    The first civilian casualties in western Europe were 1 killed and 2 wounded in the Danish town of Esbjerg, complement of the RAF, on September 3 1939.
     
  10. dazed

    dazed Junior Member

    It´s true that the russians bombed sweden. This happened a few times during the war. and It wasn't only the russians that did this. They bombed strängnäs(close to stockholm) and its military barracks. My grandfather served there then butt one that night he was home on leave. The unit that was stationed at the time in strängnäs was a armored brigade. Sweden did send 12 gladiators (mkII I think) and some hawker harts( think four) to finland during the winter war. This unit saw some action. The Swedish airforce
    lost several planes during the war. And shot down a few to, and so did the anti aircraft guns.
     
  11. jimbotosome

    jimbotosome Discharged

    Didn't the Swedes supply Germany during WWII? Technically that is considered an act of aggression. Since I have always believed the Swedes supplied Germany, I always believed they should be bombed just as the Ruhr was. I also believe the US was at war with Germany when they were supplying Britain with weaponry before they "declared" war on Germany.
     
  12. spidge

    spidge RAAF RESEARCHER

    Originally posted by jimbotosome@Sep 14 2005, 01:33 PM
    Didn't the Swedes supply Germany during WWII? Technically that is considered an act of aggression. Since I have always believed the Swedes supplied Germany, I always believed they should be bombed just as the Ruhr was. I also believe the US was at war with Germany when they were supplying Britain with weaponry before they "declared" war on Germany.
    [post=39001]Quoted post[/post]

    IMO when you speak of bombing, it was I feel never intentional as has been posted here previously (Erring in navigation).

    When Britain pulled out of Narvik (Norway), effective control of these waterways and this "theatre" was literally lost.

    Sweden was encircled on three sides by the Germans, (North, West & South) and Russia (Sweden's arch enemy) in the East, hence no trade, so draw your own conclusions.

    In the short term, they supplied 90% of Germany's Iron Ore that sustained their present production capabilities. Sweden's and Finland's trade was totally controlled by the Kriegsmarine. As a result, Germany "forced" them to agree to allow permission to transit. A total of 2,140,000 German soldiers and over 100,000 German military railway carriages, crossed Sweden until this traffic was officially suspended on August 20, 1943.

    Churchill "the visionary" (only a new member of the "War Cabinet" Nov 1939) wanted to mine Norwegian waters early in the war (Mid Nov 39) however Chamberlain & Halifax (surprise - surprise) refused. Mining of these waters did not then commence until early April 1940.

    Narvik's port, to those who are not aware, does not freeze over in Winter whereas Sweden's own port's on the Gulf of Bothnia do, which is why the railway line was built (1880's) to there from the Iron Ore mining area of Kiruna (Sweden) 120 kms north to the border and the further 40 kms west to Narvik.
     
  13. jimbotosome

    jimbotosome Discharged

    Originally posted by spidge@Sep 14 2005, 03:33 AM
    In the short term, they supplied 90% of Germany's Iron Ore that sustained their present production capabilities. Sweden's and Finland's trade was totally controlled by the Kriegsmarine. As a result, Germany "forced" them to agree to allow permission to transit. A total of 2,140,000 German soldiers and over 100,000 German military railway carriages, crossed Sweden until this traffic was officially suspended on August 20, 1943.

    So, should this serve as an act of aggression?
     
  14. spidge

    spidge RAAF RESEARCHER

    Originally posted by jimbotosome@Sep 15 2005, 01:51 PM



    So, should this serve as an act of aggression?
    [post=39040]Quoted post[/post]

    Technically ........Most definitely.

    Logically.......Independent survival.

    Denmark capitulated in less than a day......survival.

    France well!!!!!!.......Did we bomb Paris.

    Spain supplied Germany ...Intelligence, Safe Harbour for U-Boats etc

    Portugal was rowing the same boat of neutrality.

    Thailand capitulated to the Japanese and declared War on the US however Cordell Hull did not accept the declaration from the Ambassador.....Why?

    Russia signed a non aggression pact with Germany so they could invade other countries. Five minutes down the road the US supplies them with "All we have is yours".

    The Swedes resisted politically as best they could as Germany would have invaded and did what they wanted anyway.

    Think of it this way. We didn't have to get the Germans out of Sweden.
     
  15. smc66

    smc66 Member

    Originally posted by spidge@Sep 14 2005, 08:33 AM
    Sweden was encircled on three sides by the Germans, (North, West & South) and Russia (Sweden's arch enemy) in the East, hence no trade, so draw your own conclusions.
    [post=39005]Quoted post[/post]

    Being pedantic here but the Russians did not have a border with Sweden. The astern border was with the pro-German Finns.
     
  16. spidge

    spidge RAAF RESEARCHER

    Originally posted by smc66+Sep 16 2005, 07:50 AM-->(smc66 @ Sep 16 2005, 07:50 AM)</div><div class='quotemain'><!--QuoteBegin-spidge@Sep 14 2005, 08:33 AM
    Sweden was encircled on three sides by the Germans, (North, West & South) and Russia (Sweden's arch enemy) in the East, hence no trade, so draw your own conclusions.
    [post=39005]Quoted post[/post]

    Being pedantic here but the Russians did not have a border with Sweden. The astern border was with the pro-German Finns.
    [post=39079]Quoted post[/post]
    [/b]
    Of course you are.

    The "border" intentioned here was their "threat" in the east. "Border" was not mentioned however encirclement was and Finland was included in that (Three sides by the Germans).
     

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